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NEET Coaching Biology: Biological Classification

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NEET Coaching Biology: Biological Classification Sample Questions (Plus One Topic) 

    1. Select the correct statement
      1. The three-domain system has also been proposed divides the Kingdom Monera into one domains, leaving the remaining eukaryotic kingdoms with second and third domain and thereby a six kingdom classification.
      2) Marine forms of amoeboids have silica shells on their surface.
      3) Slime moulds are saprophytic protists. The body moves along decaying twigs and leaves engulfing organic material. Under suitable conditions, they form an aggregation called plasmodium which may grow and spread over only few cm.
      4) The below diagram represent saprophytic protozoans.
    2. Select the correct options regarding prions
      1) In modern medicine certain infections neurological diseases were found to be transmitted by an agent consisted of normally folded protein.
      2) The agent was large in size compared to viruses. These agents were called prions.
      3) The most notable diseases caused by prions are bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) commonly called mad cow disease in cattle
      4) Its homologous variant Cr–Jacob disease (CJD) in humans.
    3. In lichens mycobionts do …………..A……… .and phycobionts do……….B…….
      1) A= provide shelter and absorb mineral nutrients and water B= prepare food
      2) A= prepare food B= provide shelter and absorb mineral nutrients and water
      3) A= provide shelter  B= prepare food and absorb mineral nutrients and water
      4) A= absorb mineral nutrients and water  B= prepare food and provide shelter
    4. Viroids are
      1) Main cause of bovine spongiform encephalopathy
      2) High molecular weight RNA cause potato spindle
      3) Free RNA that lack protein coat discovered by T O Diener in 1981
      4) A new infectious agent that was smaller than viruses and caused potato spindle tuber disease
    5. The name virus that means venom or poisonous fluid was given by
      1) Pasteur
      2) D.J. Ivanowsky
      3) M.W. Beijerinek
      4) W.M. Stanley
    6. …………………. (1892) recognised certain microbes as causal organism of the mosaic disease of tobacco .These were found to be …………………….because they passed through bacteria-proof filters.
      1) D.J. Ivanowsky 1893, smaller than bacteria
      2) Pasteur 1892, larger than bacteria
      3) D.J. Ivanowsky 1892, smaller than bacteria
      4) M.W. Beijerinek 1898, smaller than bacteria
    7. Find the mismatch
      1) M.W. Beijerinek (1898) -demonstrated that the extract of the infected plants of tobacco Contagium vivum fluidum
      2) W.M. Stanley (1935) -viruses could be crystallised and crystals consist largely of proteins.
      3) D.J. Ivanowsky 1893-demonstrated that the extract of the infected plants of tobacco Contagium vivum fluidum
      4) All are correct
    8. Bacteriophages are
      1) Usually single stranded DNA viruses that infect the bacteria
      2) Usually double stranded RNA viruses that infect the bacteria
      3) Usually double stranded DNA viruses that infect the bacteria
      4) Usually double stranded RNA viruses that infect the plants
    9. Select the correct option regarding the diagram

      A                   B               C                  D
      1) Head      collar         sheath       Tail fibres
      2) Head      sheath       collar         Tail fibres
      3) DNA       Collar         Sheath      Tail fibres
      4) Head collar Sheath basal plate

 

    1. The viruses are
      1) Acellular organisms that are characterised by having an inert crystalline structure inside the living cell.
      2) Non-cellular organisms that are characterised by having an inert crystalline structure inside the living cell.
      3) Non-cellular organisms that are characterised by having an inert crystalline structure outside the living cell.
      4) Non-cellular organisms that are characterised by having an inert crystalline structure inside and outside the living cell.
    2. Find out the mismatched pair
      1) Bladderwort -insectivorous plants
      2) Cuscuta –parasite
      3) Venus fly trap -insectivorous plants
      4) Sundew- parasite
    3. Select the correct statements regarding dueteromycetes
      A. Once perfect (sexual) stages of members of dueteromycetes were discovered they were often moved to ascomycetes and basidiomycetes.
      B. The deuteromycetes reproduce only by sexual spores known as conidia
      C. The mycelium is Aseptate and branched.
      D. Some members are saprophytes or parasites while a large number of them are decomposers of litter and help in mineral cycling.
      E. Some examples are Alternaria, Colletotrichum andTrichoderma.
      1) A,B,C
      2) A,D,E
      3) B,C,D,E
      4) A,C,D,E

 

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    1. Basidiospores are
      1) Exogenous spores found in fruiting bodies of Agaricus Ustilago and neurospora.4 in one basidium
      2) Endogenous spores found in fruiting bodies of Agaricus Ustilago and Puccinia 8 in one basidium
      3) Exogenous spores found outside fruiting bodies of Agaricus Ustilago and Puccinia .8 in one basidium
      4) Exogenous spores found in fruiting bodies of Agaricus Ustilago and Puccinia . 4 in one basidium
    2. Asexual spores are absent in
      1) Neurospora Ustilago and Puccinia
      2) Agaricus Ustilago and Puccinia
      3) Agaricus Ustilago Neurospora and Puccinia
      4) Agaricus Ustilago claviceps and Puccinia
    3. Neurospora is used
      1) Extensively in biochemical and genetic work. They posses endogenous spores called ascospores
      2) Very less in biochemical and genetic work. They posses endogenous spores called ascospores
      3) Extensively in biochemical and genetic work. they posses exogenous spores called basidiospores
      4) Extensively in biochemical and genetic work.the posses exogenous spores called ascospores
    4. Find the correct sequence of life cycle in Ascomycytes
      1) Plamogamy -dikaryon–fruiting body-karyogamy-meiosis-ascospores-haploid hyphae
      2) Fruiting body – Plamogamy –dikaryon-karyogamy-meiosis-ascospores-diploid hyphae
      3) Plamogamy- dikaryon –fruiting body-karyogamy-meiosis-ascospores-diploid hyphae
      4) Fruiting body- Plamogamy –dikaryon-karyogamy-meiosis-ascospores-haploid hyphae
    5. Coprophilous fungi include
      1) Peziza and pilobolus dueteromycetes
      2) Peziza and pilobolus basidiomycetes
      3) Peziza and pilobolus ascomycetes
      4) Agaricus and colletotrichum-basidiomycete
    6. Fungi causing ring worm infections are
      1) Trichoderma.-Dueteromycetes
      2) Aspergillus – Ascomycytes
      3) Alternaria, Colletotrichum-phycomycetes
      4) None of the above

 

    1. Non motile endogenous asexual spores are
      1) Zoospore
      2) Aplanospore
      3) Ascospores
      4) Conidiospores
    2. Dikaryon phase is found in
      A. Rhizopus
      B. Albugo
      C. Ustilago
      D. Aspergillus
      E. Mucor
      F. Puccinia
      G. Colletotrichum
      H. Penicillium
      I. Claviceps
      J. Neurospora
      K. Yeast
      1) C,D,F,H,I,J
      2) A,C,D,J
      3) B,D,E,F,G,H,I
      4) A,C,D,J,K
    3. Many members like morels and truffles are.
      1) Edible and are considered delicacies in basidiomycetes
      2) Not edible and are considered delicacies in ascomycetes
      3) edible and are not considered delicacies in ascomycetes
      4) Edible and are considered delicacies in dueteromycetes
    4. Select the incorrect statements
      1) White spots seen on mustard leaves are due to a parasitic algal fungi- albugo
      2) Some unicellular fungi, e.g., yeast are used to make bread and beer.
      3) Wheat rust-causing Puccinia belongs to ascomycetes
      4) Some are the source of antibiotics, e.g., Penicillium.

 

    1. Symbiotic forms of fungi seen in association with lichens are
      1) Usnea
      2) Cladonia
      3) Rocella
      4) All the above
    2. Storage form of food in fungi is
      1) Oil
      2) Oil and glycogen
      3) Oil,glycogen and starch
      4) Laminarin and mannitol
    3. Fusion of gametangia is seen in
      1) Rhizopus,mucor,albugo
      2) Puccinia ,aspergillus
      3) Trichoderma,Colletotricum
      4) All the above
    4. Find the correct pair
      A. Primary mycelium-monokaryotic and haploid
      B. Secondary mycelium-monokaryotic and diploid(2n)
      C. Tertiary mycelium- dikaryotic and diploid(2n)
      1) 1 only
      2) 1 and 2 only
      3) 1,2 and 3
      4) None are correct
    5. Cell wall of fungi is made of
      1) Chitin – a heteropolysaccharide
      2) Chitin and pectin- homopolysaccharides
      3) Chitin –a homopolysaccharide
      4) Chitin,pectin and hemicellulose
    6. Select the parasitic fungi from the following
      1. Puccinia
      2. Penicillium
      3. Albugo
      4. Peziza
      5. Pilobolus
      6. Ustilago
      1) 1,4,5,6
      2) 1,3,6
      3) 1 and 6 only
      4) All the above
    7. The three-domain system has also been proposed that divides the Kingdom …..A………into two domains, leaving the remaining ….B……….kingdoms in the third domain and thereby a six kingdom classification.
      A                          B
      1) Protista           Eukaryotes
      2) Monera           Prokaryotes
      3) Fungi              Eukaryotes
      4) Monera           Eukaryotes

 

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    1. Select the correct statements regarding earlier classification systems
      I. Included bacteria, blue green algae, fungi, mosses, ferns, gymnosperms and the angiosperms under ‘Plants’.
      II. The character that unified this whole kingdom was that all the organisms included had a cell wall in their cells.
      III. It brought together the prokaryotic bacteria and eukaryotic blue green algae with other groups which were eukaryotic.
      IV. It also grouped together the unicellular organisms and the multicellular like Chlamydomonas and Spirogyra were placed together under algae.
      V. The classification did not differentiate between the heterotrophic group – fungi, and the autotrophic green plants
      1) I,ii,iii,iv
      2) I,ii,iv,v
      3) I,ii,v
      4) All are correct
    2. Kingdom Protista has brought together
      1. Chlamydomonas,
      2. Chlorella
      3. Paramoecium
      4. Amoeba
      1) 1 and 2
      2) 3 and 4
      3) All the above
      4) None of these
    3. Classification system is usuallybased on
      A. Morphological
      B. Physiological
      C. Reproductive similarities
      D. Phylogenetic,
      1) A and B
      2) A and C
      3) A, B and D
      4) All the above
    4. Structure shown below is a microscopical view of

      1) Spores of Coccus
      2) Bacillus with some spores
      3) Coccus
      4) Spirilla
    5. Most extensive metabolic diversity is seen in
      1) Monera
      2) Protista
      3) Fungi
      4) Plantae and Animalia
    6. The vast majority of bacteria are
      1) Photosynthetic autotrophic
      2) Chemosynthetic autotrophic.
      3) Heterotrophs and decomposers
      4) 2 and 3
    7. Bacterial structure is …….A…., they are very ……..B……….in behaviour
      A                       B
      1) Simple        simple
      2) Simple        complex
      3) Complex     simple
      4) Complex     complex
    8. Motile eubacteria should posses
      1) Pili and fimbria
      2) flagellum
      3) Cilia and flagellum
      4) 1 and 2
    9. Main difference between archaebacteria and eubacteria is
      1) Cell membrane structure
      2) Cell wall structure
      3) Mesosomes
      4) All the above
    10. Select the odd one
      1) Salty areas -Halophiles,
      2) Hot springs –Thermoacidophiles
      3) Marshy areas- Methanogens
      4) Heterocyst – nostoc

 

    1. Select the incorrect statements about cyanobacteria
      1) Have chlorophyll a, b,d and carotenoids similar to green plants and are photosynthetic autotrophs
      2) The cyanobacteria are unicellular, colonial or filamentous, freshwater marine or terrestrial algae.
      3) The colonies are generally surrounded by gelatinous sheath
      4) They often form blooms in polluted water bodies.
    2. These organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialised cells called heterocysts,found in
      1) Nostoc found in association with alnus
      2) Anabaena found in coralloid roots of cycas
      3) Spirulina
      4) Chlorella
    3. Some members ofcyanobacteria oxidise various inorganic substances such as …………………………….and use the released energy for their ATP production.
      1) Nitrates,
      2) Nitrites
      3) Ammonia
      4) all the above
    4. Cyanobacteria somemembers play a great role in recycling nutrients like
      A. Nitrogen
      B. Phosphorous
      C. Carbon
      D. Chlorine
      E. calcium
      F. Iron
      G. Sulphur.
      1) A,B,G
      2) A,B,D,E,G
      3) A,B,F,G
      4) All the above
    5. Bacteria mainly reproduce by
      1) Spore formation
      2) Budding
      3) Fission
      4) Conjugation
    6. Mycoplasma
      a. Is the smallest cell without a cell wall
      b. Belongs to kingdom monera
      c. Anaerobic and pathogenic
      d. Pathogenic to animals and plants
      e. Pathogenic to animals only
      1) a,b,c,e
      2) a,b,c,d
      3) b,c,d
      4) b,c,e
    7. Diatoms and golden algae (desmids). They are found
      1) In fresh water environments only. They are microscopic and does not float in water currents
      2) In marine environments only. They are microscopic and float passively in water currents
      3) In fresh water as well as in marine environments. They are large massive and float passively in water currents
      4) In fresh water as well as in marine environments. They are microscopic and float passively in water currents
    8. Chief producers in oceans are
      1) Gonyaulax
      2) Euglena
      3) Planktons
      4) All the above
    9. Diatoms cell wall deposits are used in
      1) Polishing, filtration of oils and syrups
      2) Making sound proof walls
      3) Heat resistant bricks
      4) All the above
    10. Cell wall of the organism given below is

      1) Made of cellulose and double layered
      2) Made of silica and has two valves
      3) Made of pectin and cellulose and highly sculptured
      4) Made of outer pectin and inner cellulosic layer
    11.  Select the correct statement regarding the organism given below
      a. fresh water organisms found in stagnant water
      b. Marine water organisms found in stagnant water
      c. Have cell wall
      d. Have protein coat
      e. Have unequal flagella
      f. Have similar pigments like higher plants
      g. Heterotroph
      h. always autototroph
      i. Myxotroph
      j. Connecting link between plantae and animalia
      1) a,c,e,i
      2) b,d,ef,i
      3) a,d,e,f
      4) a,d,e,f,i,j

 

  1. African sleeping sickness is caused by
    1) Trypanosoma.a motile protozoan
    2) Trypanosoma. A non motile sporozoan
    3) Plasmodium a non motile sporozoan
    4) None of these
  2. Paramoecium have a cavity ……………..that opens to the outside of the cell surface to intake food
    1) Gullet
    2) Pseudopodia
    3) Water canal system
    4) Water vascular system
  3. Dual nucleus is a character of an organism belonging to……………..
    1) Amoeboid protozoan
    2) Flagellated protozoan
    3) Ciliated protozoan
    4) Sporozoans
  4. Virus infecting plants have…….p……….and animals have ………………q………
    a. ssRNA
    b. ds RNA
    c. ssDNA
    d. dsDNA
    P                     Q
    1) a                 a,b,d
    2) a,b              a,b,c,d
    3) a,b,c,d        a,b,d
    4) a                 a,b,c,d
  5. Mosaic formation, leaf rolling and curling, yellowing and vein clearing, dwarfing and stunted growth are symptoms of
    1) Fungal infection
    2) Viral infections
    3) Bacterial infections
    4) All the above
  6. Biological indicators of pollution are
    1) Some algae associated with fungi
    2) Some blue green algae associated with fungi
    3) Some algae or blue green algae associated with fungi
    4) None of these

SBI customers can now make ATM withdrawals without debit card

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SBI customers can now make ATM withdrawals without debit card. This facility is available with SBI YONO Application. For available this facility customers must be registered in YONO application. Customers can generate a one-time pin (OTP) on their mobile application and use the pin to transact from the bank’s ATM.

The service currently will be available at 16500 ATMs. The generated pin has a half an hour validity during which the customer can go to any of SBI’s ATM and withdraw money using the OTP number. Withdraw a Maximum of ₹10000 in a Single Transaction and ₹20000 from an ATM.

How to Generate an OTP for withdraw money.

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  • Open SBI YONO Application and click YONO Pay Button.
  • After click on Yono Cash button for Generating OTP.
  • Here 3 options are available, 1. Nearest YONO Cash Point. This facility is for finding the cash withdrawal enabled ATMs near by your location. Current a few ATMs are enabled by this facility. 2. Transactions, which is used to view the transactions done by the customer. 3. Request Yono Cash. This option is for generate OTP for withdraw cash from ATM.
  • While opening this option choose the account number and enter the amount for generate OTP.
  • Please note that existing customers must be update their YONO app through Playstore for getting this feature.

NEET Coaching : Biology- Living World

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NEET Coaching Plus One Topic – Living World Sample questions

1. Which of the following is incorrect regarding scientific names?
1) These are also known as common names
2) These ensure that each organism has only one name
3) These have two components – the generic name and specific epithet
4) These are universally accepted names
2. According to binomial nomenclature, every living organism has
1) Two scientific names with single component
2) One scientific name with two components
3) Two names, one Latin and other common
4) One common name with three components

3. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. Species?
1) A group of individual organisms with fundamental similarities
2) Two different species breed together to produce fertile offsprings
3) Human beings belong to the species sapiens
4) Panthera has many specific epithet as tigris, leo and pardus

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4. Which of the following features are not shown by scientific names of various organism?
1) They consists of two components
2) They have Latin origin
3) They always have “linn” abbreviation at the end of second component
4) They are printed in italics

5. The correct sequence of taxonomic study of a newly discovered organism is
1) First classification then identification, nomenclature and characterization
2) First identification then classifying organism and then characterizations and nomenclature
3) First nomenclature then characterization, identification and classification
4) First characterisation then identification and classification and then nomenclature

6. Which one of the following statements given below is not included in universal rules of nomenclature?
1) Generic names and specific epithet should be in Latin words
2) Generic name is immediately followed by name of taxonomists who described it firstly
3) Generic name must begin with capital letter
4) All letters of the specific name must be small

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7. Match the following columns
Column-I Column-II
a. Binomial nomenclature (i) Carolus Linnaeus
b. Generic name (ii) Muscidae
c. Family (iii) Panthera
d. Systema naturae
1) a(i), b(iii), c(iii), d(ii)
2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
3) a(ii), b(i), c(i), d(iii)
4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(i)

8. Cat and dog are placed in which families respectively
1) Felidae and Hominidae
2) Muscidae and Felidae
3) Poaceae and Canidae
4) Felidae and Canidae

9. Which one of the following criteria is/are essential and form the basis of classical taxonomic studies?
1) Ecological information of organisms
2) Development process
3) External and internal structure
4) External structure

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10. In taxonomic hierarchy, which of the following group of taxa will have less number of similarities as compared to other?
1) Solanaceae, Convolvulaceae and Poaceae
2) Polymoniales, Poales and Sapindales
3) Solanum, Petunia and Atropa
4) Leopard, tiger and lion

11. Taxonomic categories which come lower to the rank of class are
1) Order, phylum, family, species
2) Order, family, genus, species
3) Division, family, order, genus
4) Order, division, genus, species

12. A place used for storing, preservation and exhibition of both plants and animals is known as
1) Herbaria
2) Botanical Garden
3) Museum
4) Zoos

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13. Herbarium consists of
1) Collection of living plants
2) Collection of plant and animal specimens preserved in the containers
3) Preserved insects in boxes after collecting killing and pinning
4) Herbarium sheets carrying dried, pressed and preserved plant specimens on them

14. Key is
1) A form of herbaria
2) A type of educational institute
3) A taxonomical aid used for identifying various organisms
4) Taxonomic category

15. In zoological parks, animals are
1) Kept and preserved in containers or jars
2) Preserved in boxes after killing
3) Kept in protected environments under human care
4) Stuffed and then preserved

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16. Carolus Linnaeus is the father of taxonomy because of one of his contributions
1) Genera Plantarum
2) Binomial nomenclature
3) Described nearly ten thousand plants and animal species
4) Die Naturlichen Pflanzen Familien

17. In which of the following pair of category, greater is the difficulty of determining the relationship to other taxa
at the same level, thus, the problem of classification becomes more complex?
1) Genus and species
2) Variety and genus
3) Division and phylum
4) Species and family

18. Rice, cereals, monocots and plants represent
1) Different taxa at different level
2) Same taxa of different category
3) Different category of same taxa
4) Same category for different taxa

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19. Potato and brinjal belong to the genus Solanum, which reflects that
1) They belong to single species
2) They are a group of related species
3) They both are morphologically and structurally similar to each other in all respects
4) They can always produce fertile hybrid

20. Mark the incorrect pair.
1) Hydra – Budding
2) Flatworm – Regeneration
3) Amoeba – Fragmentation
4) Yeast – Budding

21. Which of the following is incorrect for reproduction?
1) Unicellular organisms reproduce by cell division
2) Reproduction is a characteristic of all living organisms
3) In unicellular organisms, reproduction and growth are linked together
4) Non-living objects are incapable of reproducing

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22. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. metabolism.
1) Microbes exhibit the metabolism
2) It is the property of all living forms
3) The metabolic reactions can be demonstrated in-vitro
4) It is not a defining feature of life forms

23. Which statement is false about the growth shown by non-living objects?
1) The growth occurs from outside
2) The growth is reversible
3) The growth is due to the accumulation of material on the surface
4) The growth is intrinsic

GATE 2019 Result Published

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The Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Madras has declared the results of Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering (GATE) 2019, March 15. All the candidates who appeared for the GATE 2019 can check their scores on the official website. For checking visit gate.iitm.ac.in .

The qualified candidates will be able to download their GATE 2019 score cards from March 20 to May 31, 2019.

The IIT Madras conducted the GATE 2019 on February 2, 3, 9 and 10, 2019.

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The GATE 2019 score card is made available for the qualified candidates from GATE Online Application Processing System(GOAPS), the link for which is https://appsgate.iitm.ac.in/

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Inviting Applications from Startups for Idea & Productisation Grant

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Keral Startup Mission Inviting Applications from Startups for Idea & Productisation Grant. The Idea & Productisation grant will be awarded to startups who are developing technology innovations/ products which is in the Idea or development phase. For idea stage startups the grant is limited to 2 lakhs and for productisation stage startups the grant is limited to 7 lakhs.

Who Should Apply?

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  • If you are a startup registered (Pvt/LLP) in Kerala and/or is a member of one of approved incubator in the State.
  • If you have an idea or prototype which has been validated by potential customers.
  • The applicant should give a clear business plan justifying the use of funds

Also Note,

  • Idea grant can be used only for sourcing hardware, components, technology transfer, testing, testing platform creation etc, Grant cannot be used for meeting manpower cost.
  • Productisation Grant can be used to convert the market validated prototype into a finished product. The productisation grant recipients are expected to be registered as private limited companies or LLPs. This grant may be used to procure material or hire specialised services to develop a finished product. The startup is expected to launch the product using this grant and onboard a few early adopters before applying for the scale-up grant.
  • Top 30 Applicants will be called for the final Pitching.

For more details and Registration visit https://bit.ly/2FbuxGQ

Solve For India-Tech Startup Summit

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Internet and Mobile Association of India (IAMAI) Mobile10x is organising “Solve For India-Tech Startup Summit” in association with IIMK-LIVE & #KSUM on 29 March’19 at IIM Kozhikode for adopting strategies for building in-house capabilities & for nurturing innovative startups in Calicut.

For Registering visit https://in.explara.com/e/tech-startups-summit–solve-for-india-startup

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Overview
Realising the potential of emerging tech, several entrepreneurs in Kerala are building products and services to solve critical problems like crop insurance using blockchain; Drones/AI to monitor crops; Training of field nursing staff using AR-VR; Identifying culprits using AR glasses by the Law enforcement forces; and many more in recent past. There is a growing number of startups in across Kerala which are focused on building solutions using Emerging technologies that cater to the real pain points of India. span class apple-style-span, Block Chain, AI, Big dataIoT, AR/VR, Drone Tech amongst others. The Summit is expected to be attended by over 300 start ups from across the state of Kerala.

Walk-in Interview for Freshers at Marian Engineering College, Trivandrum

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A Walk-in Interview for Freshers will conduct at Marian Engineering College, Kazakoottam on 18 March 2019. Interview is for filling various positions at RM Education Solutions India Private Limited. RMESI is a subsidiary of UK-based RM Plc, which is listed on the London Stock Exchange.

Venue : Marian Engineering College, Kazakoottam, Trivandrum

Date : 18 March 2019

Participating company : RM Education Solutions India Private Limited.

Time : 9.30 am to 3.30 pm

Positions:
Application Support

  • Excellent Communication skill is mandatory
  • Basic understanding knowledge of SQL
  • Excellent analytical skill
  • Should be graduate in IT/ CS ( B.Tech, Diploma in CS, B.Sc, BCA)
  • Flexible to work in shifts
  • Excellent interpersonal skills

Business Operations Consultant

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  • Excellent Communication skill is mandatory
  • Excellent planning and organising skill.
  • Excellent analytical skills
  • Any graduate
  • Flexible to work in shifts
  • Excellent interpersonal skills

Please note that candidates with more than 1 year of experience will not be considered.

For more details visit www.rmesi.co.in

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RPF Recruitment for the Post of Constable Shortlist Published (RPF -01/2018) cut off mark included.

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Railway Protection Force Recruitment Board declare RPF Constable Post ( RPF-01/2018) short listed candidates for PMT, DV and PET.

Shortlisted candidates will called for Physicical Efficiency Test. Pdf file is updated in Official website. Physical Efficiency Test will be starts on first week of April 2019.

For downloading Shortlist visit https://constable.rpfonlinereg.org/home.html

For Cut off mark of Constable visit

www.constable1.rpfonlinereg.org/cutoff.html

Physical Efficiency Test Hallticket available in Official website visit

www.constable1.rpfonlinereg.org/home.html

Select a Group to view Shortlisted Candidates for PMT, PET and DV.

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Group A – SR, SWR and SCR

Group B – CR, WR, WCR, and SECR

Group E – NFR

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Group F – RPSF ( Male Candidates only)

Details of abbreviations :

  • CR= Central Railway,
  • ER=Eastern Railway,
  • ECoR=East Coast Railway,
  • ECR=East Central Railway,
  • NR=Northern Railway,
  • NCR=North Central Railway,
  • NER=North Eastern Railway,
  • NFR=North East Frontier Railway,
  • NWR=North Western Railway,
  • SR=Southern Railway,
  • SCR=South Central Railway,
  • SER=South Eastern Railway,
  • SECR=South East Central Railway,
  • SWR=South Western Railway,
  • WR=Western Railway,
  • WCR=West Central Railway.

For detailed notification about vacancies and PET in English visit https://constable.rpfonlinereg.org/documents/NotificationNo-012018-Constable-English.pdf

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DRONE RACE – A hands-on workshop in association with Kerala StartUp Mission at Snit Kollam

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A hands-on workshop in association with Kerala StartUp Mission and ICFOSS on March 28th Thursday and 29th Friday 2019 at Sree Narayana Institute of Technology, Ayathil, Kollam.

Day-1

Gesture controlled Drone assembling and controlling with C program, Test Flying

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Day-2

Calibrate performance and race your drone.
First prize- A Gesture controlled Drone worth 25000

Last date to Register 26-03-2019, 2pm.

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Only first 25 applicants can be accommodated to the event.

For Registration Call

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  • Prof.Sumith.S : 9446 200 299 (IEDC Nodal Officer)
  • Mr. Sankaranarayana Sarma : 9446 570 999(IEDC CEO)
  • Ms. Sruthy.S : 8156 868 758(IEDC COO)
  • Mr. Renson.S : 8547 896 057(IEDC COO)
  • Ms. Archana.S : 9562 473 564(IEDC CMO)

For more information visit https://www.snit.ac.in

Mega Job Fair at St. Thomas College, Kozhencherry, Pathanamthitta

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District Employability Centre Kottayam conduct a Mega Job Fair at Pathanamthitta in Association with St. Thomas College, Kozhencherry, Pathanamthitta. Job Fest will conducted on 8th March 2019. 25 + companies will participating in this Job Fest and 1000 + vacancies reported.

Venue : St. Thomas College, Kozhencherry, Pathanamthitta.

Date : 8th March 2019.

Time : 9.30 am onwards

Employers from Banking, Nursing, Pharmacy, Para Medical, Automobile IT sectors are participating in this Job Fest.

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For more details contact Employability Centre, Kottayam or call: 0481 2563451, 2565452.

For vacancies details visit official Facebook page of Employability Centre, Kottayam.

RRB Group D (CEN No. 02/2018) Result Published

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Railway Recruitment Board declared Group D (CEN No. 02/2018) results today 04th March 2019. RRB Group D exam was conducted in computer-based mode from September 2018 to December 2018.
Qualified candidates will be called for Physical Efficiency Test (PET).

Normalization process is followed by several examination boards and recruitment boards to make sure that different questions across different session do not affect the chances of a candidate.

Candidates can view their normalised Marks and shortlisting status for Pysical Efficiency Test by logging in through the link provided on the official websites of RRBs duly entering their Registration Number and Date of Birth in DDMMYYYY format. We provide direct link for checking Group D exam result.

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Cuf of Group D Exam

Link for Normalised mark and individual score visit https://dc4-g22.digialm.com//EForms/configuredHtml/2022/57738/login.html

About PET

For males: Candidates should be able to lift and carry 35 kilograms of weight for a distance of 100 metres in two minutes in one chance without putting the weight down. They have to run for a distance of 1000 metres in four minutes and 15 seconds.

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For females: Candidates should be able to lift and carry 20 kg of weight for a distance of 100 metres in two minutes in without putting the weight down and they will have to run for 1000 metres in five minutes and 40 seconds.

Online Registration for CEN No.01/2019 for Non Technical Popular Categories(NTPC) – Under Graduate and Graduate Posts

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Railway Recruitment Board invited  eligible Indian Nationals and other nationals as Non-Technical Popular Categories (NTPC) i.e. Junior Clerk cum Typist, Accounts Clerk cum Typist, Junior Time Keeper, Trains Clerk, Commercial cum Ticket Clerk, Traffic Assistant, Goods Guard, Senior Commercial cum Ticket Clerk, Senior Clerk cum Typist, Junior Account Assistant cum Typist, Senior Time Keeper, Commercial Apprentice and Station Master in various Zonal Railways and Production Units of Indian Railways. Applications complete in all respect should be
submitted ONLINE to the chosen Railway Recruitment Board till 23.59 hrs. of 12.04.2019.

Under Graduate Posts with Minimum Educational Qualification of 12th (+2 Stage) or its equivalent examination and Age between 18 to 30 Years as on 01.07.2019. Total vacancies are  10628

Graduate Posts with Minimum Educational Qualification of a University Degree or its equivalent and Age between 18 to 33 Years as on 01.07.2019. Total vacancies are 24649

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RRB Wise Vacancy details 

[googlepdf url=”http://techtreasure.in/wp-content/uploads/2019/03/RRB_vacancywise_list-1.pdf” download=”Download” width=”50%” height=”400″]

For Employment details of CEN 01/2019 visit https://thiruvananthapuram.rrbonlinereg.co.in/documents/RRB_CEN_01_2019.pdf

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Important Dates & Time of CEN 01/2019

Step by Step instruction for Apply Online CEN 01/2019

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  1. Open https://thiruvananthapuram.rrbonlinereg.co.in/
  2. Click on the “New Registration” link on the home page of the Online Registration portal of CEN 01/2019 for the recruitment of various posts.
  3. Select the RRB to which you wish to apply. Please be aware that, RRB once selected cannot be changed after the preliminary registration is completed and Registration number is allotted.
  4. Registration Details: Enter your name, Date of Birth and Father’s name as per Para 1.7 of General Instructions, Mother’s Name, Aadhaar Number, SSLC/Metric Roll Number, Year of Passing, Mobile Number and e-mail-ID and then submit for registration. Before submitting for registration, ensure and confirm that all the information furnished above are correct, as the details furnished for registration cannot be changed later. Please note that the email ID used for the Registration must be yours and unique. Also note that both the email and Mobile Number will be verified during the Online Application process with a One Time Password (OTP).
  5. Verification of email ID and mobile number through OTP.
  6. On verification of both the email id and mobile number, a unique registration number is generated for the candidate. Candidate should note and preserve their registration number for later reference during the recruitment process and RRB will not entertain any request seeking registration number.
  7. Part 1 of application page, provide the details of Educational Qualification, Community- UR/OBC/SC/ST/EWS, Gender, Religion, Ex SM, PwBD, Minority, Economically Backward Class and Age Relaxation eligibility category as applicable and other details.
  8. In the Part II of application page, fill in details of: Set priority / preferences for posts, Scribe (Applicable to eligible PwBD Candidates only), Detailed Educational Qualification, Choice of Exam Language.
  9. Bank Account Details for Refund:Candidate who attend 1st Stage of CBT are eligible for refund of examination fee as per details in CEN Para 7.0. All candidates who have given the confirmation to receive their refund to the account from which they have made the application fee payment, need not fill these details and hence, this will not be visible for them.
  10. Photograph and Signature Upload: SPECIFICATIONS FOR PHOTOGRAPH:
    It should be a Color Passport Photograph with white/light color background.
    It should be of size 35mmX45mm or 320 x 240 pixels.
    It should be in JPG/JPEG format scanned with 100 DPI resolution.
    The size of the photograph should be between 20-50KB. The color photograph must have been taken on or after 01-01-2019 in a professional studio. Photographs taken using mobile and self-composed portraits may result in rejection of application.
    The photo should have clear front view of the candidate without cap and sunglasses.
    The face should occupy at least 50% of the area of the photograph with a full face view looking at the camera directly.
    The main features of the face must not be covered by hair of the head any cloth or any shadow.
    Forehead, eyes, nose and chin should be clearly visible.
    In case the candidate wears glasses, then the photograph should not have any glare/reflections on glasses and eyes should be clearly visible.
    The photograph must match with the candidate appearance on the days of CBTs/CBAT/TST, DV and Medical.
    PwBD candidates should also upload passport photograph as per above specifications only and not the full body photograph used in the disability certificate.
    Candidates are advised to keep at least 12 (Twelve) copies of the same photograph for further use as and when required during the recruitment process.
  11. SPECIFICATION FOR SIGNATURE IMAGE:  The applicant has to sign on white paper with Black Ink pen within a box of size 50mm x 20mm.
    Signature must be in running letters and NOT IN BLOCK LETTERS.
    The image should be in JPG/JPEG format scanned with 100 DPI resolution.
    Dimensions of 50mm x 20mm or 140 x60 pixels (preferred).
    Size of file should be between 10KB-40KB.

RRB CEN 01/2018 2nd Stage (ALP & Technicians Answer key released

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Railway Recruitment Board release CEN 01/2018 (ALP & Technicians Posts) 2nd Stage Computer Based Test (CBT) Question Paper, Responses and Keys on 18.02.2019. Raising of Objections if any to Questions/ Options/Keys will be now enabled.
The 2nd Stage CBT for ALP & Technician Posts against CEN 01/2018 was conducted on 21.01.19, 22.01.19, 23.01.19 and 08-02-19.

In order to enable candidates who appeared in this CBT to view their question papers, responses and answer keys, a link has been provided on the websites of RRBs which will be active from 12:00hrs on 18-02-2019 to 23:59 hrs of 20-02-2019.

After viewing the details, objections if any regarding the questions, options and keys published can be raised by the candidates for which the time schedule, fee and details are provided.

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For full notification about Answer key release click here

For checking Answer key visit https://rrbalp.digialm.com//EForms/configuredHtml/1907/57281//Instruction.html

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Radio Garden All in One Radio Service

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We can found world wide Radio Stations in a single platform. How ? A website called http://radio.garden/live which is a server of all radio stations. With the help of Internet we can hear song and other programs online without any interept.

When open the website, a glob is shown in it, also a pointer is shown. If we interested in any Radio station point that pointer to a Green dots, then it will starts working.

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No headset is needed for using this service. Android application is available in Google Play Store. For downloading the Android Application visit https://play.google.com/store/apps/details?id=com.jonathanpuckey.radiogarden

Kerala Public Service Commission Online Aptitude Test For Engineering College students

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Kerala Public Commission conduct an Online Aptitude Test for Engineering College students. This Aptitude Test is conducted as part of the expansion of PSC examinations in engineering colleges. Online registration is mandatory for attending the test. Only Engineering college students can attend this aptitude test. Aptitude test is conducted only for 3rd and 4th semester students. Test will conduct on March 9, 2019.

List of examination centres are published in Official website of Public Service Commission. Qualifying candidates get a merit certificate and get activity point for KTU students. Hallticket will be downloaded from 01.03.2019 to 09.03.2019. Only 10000 students can participate in this Aptitude Test.

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Courtesy : Kerala PSC

For online Registration visit https://mailer.psc.kerala.gov.in/KPSCAptitudeTest/

For Notification and instructions visit https://mailer.psc.kerala.gov.in/KPSCAptitudeTest/Instructions.pdf

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For downloading Hallticket visit https://mailer.psc.kerala.gov.in/KPSCAptitudeTest/

Provisional Answer Key of the Engineering Aptitude Test conducted on 09.03.2019 published visit https://drive.google.com/file/d/19OD_3SPxZh0qtL_NWKTg8-7aUrFvSDU7/view

Career Expo 2019 at Cusat

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Career Expo 2019 is a job fair organized by Kerala State Youth Welfare Board, Kerala State Youth Commission and CUSAT in Strategic Partnership with NowNext. This would be one of the biggest job fairs ever conducted in the history of Kerala with candidates from all over the State.

Non-technical candidates will commence on February 22, 2019 and the technical candidates will commence on 23 February 2019

Venue : Cusat Campus, Kochi.

Candidates and employers can register through https://www.careerexpo2019.in website.

Participating companies

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  • Eureka Forbes
  • Foxy Frames Productions
  • Indusbot
  • Concriva Group
  • Creative Dreams Design
  • Hydenso
  • Indus Wand Group
  • Eben Telecoms
  • Ormeon IT Consulting Pvt. Ltd
  • Muthoot Fincorp
  • Extreme
  • Samastha
  • Grapes
  • Instio
  • Spinox etc.

For more details call +91 735 635 7770 (10 AM to 6 PM) or email: info@careerexpo2019.in

വഴിതെറ്റിക്കാൻ ചൈനീസ് ആപ്പുകൾ

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ടിക്‌ടോക്, ക്വായ്, ബിഗോലൈവ്, അപ്പ്‌ലൈവ്, ലൈക് തുടങ്ങി ചൈനീസ് ആപ്പുകൾക്ക് വൻ സ്വീകാര്യതയാണ് ഇന്ന് ഇന്ത്യയിൽ, പ്രത്യേകിച്ച് ചെറുപ്പക്കാർക്കിടയിൽ. 15 സെക്കന്റ് വീഡിയോയിൽ ചുണ്ടനക്കി കൗമാരക്കാരായ കുട്ടികളും മുതിർന്നവരും തങ്ങളുടെ അഭിരുചികൾ പുറത്ത് കാട്ടുന്നു.

എന്നാൽ ഈ ആപ്പുകൾക്ക് യാതൊരു പ്രൈവസി പോളിസികളും നിലവിലില്ല. ഇത്തരം ആപ്പുകൾ കുട്ടികളെ ലൈംഗികമായി ചൂഷണം ചെയ്യാന്‍ നടക്കുന്നവരുടെ വിളനിലമായി മാറിയിരിക്കുകയാണെന്ന് പറയാം, കാരണം കൗമാരക്കാരാണ് ഇത്തരം ആപ്പുകളുടെ ഉപഭോക്താക്കൾ. ആപ്പുകളുടെ ഉപയോഗം നിമിത്തം പേഴ്സണൽ ഡാറ്റ അടക്കം ചൈനീസ് അധികൃതർക്ക് ലഭിക്കുന്നു എന്നും പഠനങ്ങൾ തെളിയിക്കുന്നു.

ചുരുക്കി പറഞ്ഞാൽ നമ്മൾ അറിയാതെ നമ്മളുടെ ഫോണിലെ ഒരു വീഡിയോ, ചിത്രങ്ങൾ ടിക് ടോക് പോലുള്ള ആപ്ലിക്കേഷനിൽ എത്തിയാൽ അതിനെതിരെ പരാതിപ്പെടാൻ ഒരു ഓഫീസ് സംവിധാനം പോലും ഈ കമ്പനികൾക്ക് ഇന്ത്യയിൽ നിലവിലില്ല. ഇത്തരത്തിൽ മാനദണ്ഡങ്ങൾ പാലിക്കാത്ത ആപ്ലിക്കേഷൻ ഉപയോഗം കർശനമായി തടയേണ്ടത് അനിവാര്യമാണ്.

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DELOITTE Recruiting B.Com / BBA – 2019 Batch

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Marian College , Kuttikkanam organise a Recruing Drive in Association with Deloitte.

Company : Deloitte – World’s biggest private professional service provider
Designation : Associate Analyst
Online Test Date: Tuesday , February 5th , 2019
Venue :Marian College , Kuttikkanam
Salary offered: 3,30,000 per annum (CTC).

Eligibility Criteria:
B.Com (Computer Application not eligible) / BBA
2019 Passing out branch
Candidates with no active backlogs
Candidates with 60% or more in graduation

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Work location: Bangalore.
For details about the Company, Job profile and online application, click below link
https://dtt.taleo.net/careersection/10181/jobdetail.ftl?lang=en&job=S19HCPCDJ-KERL

After registration in Deloitte Site, Please click the below link and enter the necessary details.
https://docs.google.com/forms/d/1Z_HKA9h_dRIayahkRo_3haeK6OV5aH-
XPIKcThzXK9Y/edit

Last date of Application: Feb 3rd , 2019. No registration fee is applicable.

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Data Privacy Day 28 January

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Data Privacy Day is occurs every 28 January. Data Privacy Day purpose is to raised to aware Data Protection and Privacy. It is currently observed in 47 European countries including India, Canada, United States etc.

Data Privacy day is mainly focused about the importance of protecting the privacy of their personal information online, particularly in the context of social networking. The Data Privacy day was initiated by the Council of Europe to be first held in 2007 as the European Data Protection Day.

കെ – സ്വിഫ്റ്റ് ഏകജാലക സംവിധാനം

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എന്താണ് കെ സ്വിഫ്റ്റ് സംവിധാനം

(Single Window Interface for Fast &
Transparent Clearance)

പുതിയ വ്യവസായങ്ങള്‍ക്കാവശ്യമായ വിവിധ അനുമതികള്‍ ലഭ്യമാക്കുക എന്ന ഉദ്ദേശ്യത്തോടെ കേരള സര്‍ക്കാര്‍ 01.06.2000 മുതല്‍ ഒരു ഏകജാലക സംവിധാനം ആവിഷ്‌കരിച്ചിട്ടുണ്ട്. ‌ഇതു പ്രകാരം അപേക്ഷ ലഭിച്ചു കഴിഞ്ഞാല്‍ അനുമതി നല്‍കുന്നതോ നിരസിക്കുന്നതോ ആയ തീരുമാനം നിശ്ചിത തീയതിക്കകം കൈക്കൊണ്ട്‌ അറിയിക്കേണ്ടതാണ്. 1999-ലെ കേരളാ സ്‌റ്റേറ്റ്‌ സിംഗിൾ വിന്‍ഡോ ക്ലിയറന്‍സ്‌ ബോര്‍ഡ്‌സ്‌ ആന്‍ഡ്‌ ഇന്‍ഡസ്‌ട്രിയല്‍ ടൗണ്‍ഷിപ്പ്‌ ഏരിയ ഡെവലപ്‌മെൻ്റ് ആക്‌റ്റ് പ്രകാരം ഇത്‌ നിയമപരമായ ബാദ്ധ്യതയായി വ്യവസ്ഥ ചെയ്യപ്പെട്ടിരിക്കുന്നു.

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ഇടത്തരം, വന്‍കിട വ്യവസായങ്ങളെ സഹായിക്കാനായി ഒരു സംസ്ഥാനതല സമിതി രൂപീകരിച്ചിട്ടുണ്ട്. ചീഫ്‌ സെക്രട്ടറി അദ്ധ്യക്ഷനായ ഈ സമിതി 45 ദിവസത്തിനകം പദ്ധതിക്കുള്ള അനുമതി നല്‌കുന്നതായിരിക്കും. അനുമതികള്‍ക്കായി വ്യവസായികള്‍ സമീപിക്കേണ്ട ഏകകേന്ദ്രം KSIDC ആയിരിക്കും. KSIDC സംസ്ഥാനതല സമിതിയുടെ കണ്‍വീനറായും പ്രവര്‍ത്തിക്കുന്നു. തീരുമാനങ്ങള്‍ നടപ്പാക്കുന്നതിന്‌ സമിതിക്ക്‌ സ്‌റ്റാറ്റ്യൂട്ടറി അധികാരങ്ങള്‍ നല്‌കിയിട്ടുണ്ട്.

ഇതിനു സമാനമായി ചെറുകിട വ്യവസായങ്ങള്‍ക്ക്‌ അനുമതി നല്‌കുന്നതിന്‌ ജില്ലാതല സമിതികളും രൂപീകരിച്ചിരിക്കുന്നു. ജില്ലാ കളക്ടര്‍ സമിതിയുടെ ചെയര്‍മാനും ജില്ലാ വ്യവസായ കേന്ദ്രം ജനറല്‍ മാനേജര്‍ കണ്‍വീനറുമായിരിക്കും. അനുമതികള്‍ ലഭ്യമാക്കുന്നതിനുള്ള കാലാവധി 60 ദിവസമായി ക്ലിപ്‌തപ്പെടുത്തിയിരിക്കുന്നു.

വിവിധ ഇന്‍ഡസ്‌ട്രിയല്‍ ഏരിയകളില്‍ വ്യവസായം തുടങ്ങുന്നതിനുള്ള അനുമതികള്‍ ലഭ്യമാക്കുന്നതിനായി ഇന്‍ഡസ്‌ട്രിയല്‍ ഏരിയ സമിതികള്‍ രൂപീകരിച്ചിട്ടുണ്ട്. ജില്ലാ കളക്ടറുടെ പദവിയില്‍ കുറയാത്ത ഒരു ഉദ്യോഗസ്ഥനാകും ഓരോ സമിതിയുടെയും ചെയര്‍മാന്‍ . അതാത്‌ ഇന്‍ഡസ്‌ട്രിയല്‍ ഏരിയയില്‍ നിര്‍ദ്ദേശിക്കപ്പെട്ടിരിക്കുന്ന അധികാരി കണ്‍വീനറായ സമിതി 30 ദിവസത്തിനകം അനുമതി നല്‌കിയിരിക്കണം.

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കെ – സ്വിഫ്റ്റ് സേവനം എങ്ങനെ ലഭ്യമാക്കാം?

ഏതെങ്കിലും ഒരു സേവനത്തിനു വേണ്ടി അപേക്ഷിക്കുന്നതിനു മുമ്പ്, നിങ്ങൾ സിംഗിൾ വിൻഡോ ക്ലിയറൻസുമായി രജിസ്റ്റർ ചെയ്തിരിക്കണം. രജിസ്‌ട്രേഷൻ ഒരു വൺ ടൈം പ്രോസസ്സ് ആണ്. ആദ്യം നിങ്ങൾ രജിസ്റ്റർ ചെയ്ത് ഒരു ലോഗിൻ അക്കൗണ്ട് ഉണ്ടാക്കണം. ബിസിനസ്സ് സ്ഥാപനം സ്ഥാപിക്കുന്നതിന് ആവശ്യമായ ഡവലപ്മെൻ്റൽ ക്ലിയറൻസുകൾ ആക്സസ് ചെയ്യുന്നതിന് ഉപയോക്തൃ രജിസ്ട്രേഷൻ സാധ്യമാക്കും.

നിലവിൽ 22 സേവനങ്ങൾ സിംഗിൾ വിൻഡോ ക്ലിയറൻസിൽ ലഭ്യമാണ്. സേവനങ്ങളുടെ ലിസ്റ്റ് കാണുവാൻ www.kswift.kerala.gov.in സന്ദർശിക്കൂ.

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