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Technical Education, Kerala Mercy Chance for Engineering Diploma Students

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Directorate of Technical Education announced mercy chance for Engineering Diploma students. Three examination centers are allotted for mercy chance. Thiruvananthapuram, Kalamassery and Kozikodu. Minimum Fee is Rs.1000 up to 5 subjects and above 5, Rs. 200 for each papers.

Last date for fee payment is 27.04.2019 and last date of offline application submitting is 10.05.2019. For More details visit https://www.tekerala.org

Official Notification in Malayalam
[googlepdf url=”http://techtreasure.in/wp-content/uploads/2019/04/noti_mercy.pdf” download=”Download” width=”100%” height=”600″]

For Downloading Application Form
[googlepdf url=”http://techtreasure.in/wp-content/uploads/2019/04/app_mercy.pdf” download=”Download” width=”100%” height=”600″]

Vacancies in Technical Research Organization : 127 Technical Assistant

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National Technical Research Organization invites Online application for the Post of Technical Assistant. 127 vacancies reported in Electronics and Computer science categories.

Electronics : Vacancies 52 (General 20, EWS 9, SC 5, ST 3, OBC 15). 1 vacancy is reserved for Physically handicapped parsons.
Qualification : Graduate in Science ( Physics or Mathematics) or Three year diploma in Electronics/ Communication / Electronics and Communication / Telecommunication /  Electronics and Telecommunication. or Technical Proficiency Certificate issued by Armed force for the above mentioned engineering categories.

Computer Science : Vacancies 75 (UR 28, EWS 13, SC 7, ST 6, OBC 22 ) Qualification : Graduate in Science ( Physics or Mathematics) or Graduate in Computer Application or Three year diploma in Computer / Computer Science / Computer Technology / Computer Science and Information Technology or  Certificate issued by Armed force for the above mentioned engineering categories.
Age limit : 30 years

Selection is on the basis of Preliminary and Final Examination. In Preliminary examination multiple choice questions including computer, General Science, Current affairs , Quantitative aptitude, and Reasoning. Maximum Mark 400 and includes 100 questions. Examination centers available in Trivandrum and Kochi in Kerala. Tentative Schedule of Priliminary examination is April 28 2019.

For more details and apply online visit https://ntrorectt.in/ntro/home and click on Online Application link :

Last date for submitting online Application is 4th April 2019 05.00 pm.

i) Candidates those who are willing to serve anywhere in India in the event of their selection and appointment to the post only need to apply.
(ii) Candidates may please note that B.E or B.Tech or MCA is NOT the essential qualification required for the post of Technical Assistant. Mark sheet of requisite prescribed essential qualification will ONLY be accepted.

Post Graduate Medical (PGM) Courses 2019, Kerala Tentative Schedule

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Office of the Commissioner for Entrance Examination, Kerala published the Tentative Schedule for Counselling or Admission for PG Medical Courses.

PG Medical Admission Tentative Schedule

Option entry for First Round of counselling of eligible students : 30th March 2019 to 5th April 2019
Publication of Kerala State Rank list or  category list : 4th April 2019
1st Round Counselling result : 7th April 2019
Allotted students to join colleges : 8th April to 12th April 2019
Last date of joining after first round of counselling : 12th April 2019
Option entry for second round counselling : 20th April to 25th April 2019
2nd Round counselling result :   26th April 2019
Allotted students to join colleges : 27th April to 3rd May 2019
Last date of joining after second round of counselling : 3rd May 2019
Mop – up Round : 4th May to 8th May 2019
Last date of joining after mop – up round : 12th May 2019
Last date of Joining : 18th May 2019

for Official schedule visit https://cee.kerala.gov.in/PGMschedule.pdf

for Login to Candidate portal visit https://cee.kerala.gov.in/pgm2019/public/

How to Check RRB Junior Engineer (JE) Application Status

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Railway Recruitment Board Enable facility to check the application status of (CEN) No.03/2018 Recruitment of Junior Engineer (JE), Junior Engineer (Information Technology) [JE(IT)], Depot Material Superintendent (DMS) and Chemical & Metallurgical Assistant (CMA).

Candidates can now check whether the application is accepted or not.

  1. For checking the status of Application visit https://seje5.rly-rect-appn.in/application_status/ and select the RRB region applied.
  2. After selecting RRB region you must enter the Registration ID and date of birth and click submit button.
  3. Candidates can check the application status on the Candidate portal.

Tentative Date of CBT Stage I Examination of Junior Engineer is April/May 2019.

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Vacancies in ESAF and Axis Bank at Thrissur

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Employability Centre, Thrissur conduct a Recruitment drive on 28th March 2019 for filling up various vacancies in Thrissur district. Age limit is 30 years. Main Recruiters are ESAF and Axis bank. BBA, BCom, MBA completed students can participate in ESAF Interview. A written test is the first process of selecting suitable candidates.

Axis Bank hiring Business Development Executive positions in their bank. Qualification : Any degree. An online test will conduct for selecting suitable candidates.

Reporting Time is 10.30 am.

Job Location : Thrissur

Venue : Employability Centre, Thrissur

Date : 28th March 2019

Openings :

ESAF – Assistant Executive

Axis Bank – Business Development Executive

CUSAT CAT 2019 Admit Card Released

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Cochin University of Science and Technology(CUSAT) Kochi, has released the CUSAT CAT 2019 admit card for the Computer Based Test (CBT), which will be conducted on April 6 and 7, 2019.

The CUSAT CAT admit card can be downloaded from the official website till April 7, 2019. To download the CUSAT CAT hall ticket, candidate will have to login to the candidate profile. The login option is available on the home page of the website.

For downloading Admit Card visit www.admissions.cusat.ac.in and login using user id and password. After successful login candidates can download the Hallticket from the portal.

Candidates can download Hallticket from 25/03/2019 to 07/04/2019.

RRC CEN No. RRC-01/2019 (Group D Recruitment ) Apply Online now

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Online applications are invited by RRBs on behalf of RRCs from eligible Indian Nationals and other nationals as brought out at Para 4 of this CEN for various posts in Level 1 of 7th CPC Pay Matrix in various units of Indian Railways. Applications complete in all respect should be submitted ONLINE to the chosen Railway Recruitment Board till 23.59 hrs of 26.04.2019

Opening of online registration of Applications : 12.03.2019 at 17.00 hrs.
Closing of online registration of Applications :  12.04.2019 at 23.59 hrs.
Closing Date & Time for Payment of Application Fee through:
(a) Online (Net Banking/ Credit Card/ Debit Card/UPI) 23.04.2019 at 23.59 hrs.
(b) SBI Challan 18.04.2019 at 13.00 hrs.
(c) Post Office Challan 18.04.2019 at 13.00 hrs.
Final submission of Applications : 26.04.2019 at 23.59 hrs.
Computer Based Test (CBT) Tentative schedule : September-October 2019

DETAILS OF VACANCIES AT A GLANCE
How to Apply

  1. Visit official website of RRB  www.sr.rly-rect-appn.in/rrbgroupd2019/
  2. Click on New Registration Link
  3. Fill community details, Course Completed Act Apprenticeship etc and click submit
  4. Select Railway zone  of your choice which you like to apply. ( Once selected cannot be changed )
  5. Fill up the basic details viz. Name, Father name, Mother Name, Date of Birth, Mobile number, E-mail Id, Aadhar number etc. ( Mobile Number and E-mail ID is mandatory for application)
  6. Retrieve OTPs from mobile number and E-mail and enter the same in respective text box and click on ‘Validate’ Button. After validation of OTP’s of Mobile and E-mail Id, it cannot be changed.
  7. Click On ‘Apply/Edit’ option on the screen. Complete the Eligibility Criteria Form and Submit. Before submitting the Eligibility Criteria Form, be sure that all the information is filled correctly. After submission, you can modify only by Paying the modification fee of Rs 100/-. The modification can be done only Twice.
  8. After submission of Eligibility criteria form, the list of posts for which the candida
  9. Complete the Registration process by filling all the details for generating a Registration Id & Password for login and OTPs (One Time Password) for validation. The Registration Id and password will be displayed on the screen. OTPs will be sent to your registered mobile number and E-mail id. Only one ONLINE Registration is permitted through one mobile number and one email ID under this CEN.
  10. te is eligible, will be displayed to enable the candidates to enter the priority number in the order of their preference. Candidates will be considered only for the posts for which post preference has been entered. Hence candidates should select as many posts as they would like to be considered from the list. Once sure of the selection, Click on confirm button or edit if wish to change the priority numbers.
  11. After submission of preference form, make the Payment by clicking on the Payment tab. Only after payment you will be able to fill the additional details and upload Photos and signature etc.
  12. Select the Payment Mode
    1) Bank : Net Banking /Credit card/Debit card/UPI etc : Select the mode of payment of fees from the options available such as Net Banking, Credit Card/Debit Card etc., Enter the details required on the relevant option screen and submit the payment. After a while you will get the payment response as “Success” once bank has received your fees, or else a “Failure” response will be displayed on the screen along with the reason for failure.
    For Payment through SBI Challan and NEFT,Click on “SBI Branch” from the options. Fill the mobile number & date of birth and click “Confirm” button. Then click on the “Click here to Download” the form in PDF, take the print of the form, fill relevant details and pay the fees at your nearest SBI branch. Payment confirmation may take 2 hours and hence login after 2 hours and look for confirmation of payment status.
    2) Post Office
    For Payment through Post Office, Select Post Office from the drop down and Click the button to proceed for generating a Challan. Take print of the Challan and pay the fees in the nearest computerized post office. Payment confirmation may take 48 hours and hence login after 48 hours and look for confirmation of payment status.
  13. After successful payment, Click on the “Fill additional details” and complete the remaining application form by filling up additional details and Photo(s)/Document(s) Upload. Before uploading photo and signature, be sure that the scanned photo is as per the specification mentioned in CEN
  14. Final Submit. Before clicking on “Final submit”, make sure the photograph and signatures are uploaded properly by checking previews of photograph and signature. After submission, it can be edited only by paying the modification fee of Rs 100/- . Modification can be done only twice

For Official Notification and vacancy details  visit www.rrbchennai.gov.in/downloads/cen-no-rrc01-2019.pdf

Error in RRB ALP & Technician Result

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Railway Recruitment Board displayed a notice while checking the result of RRB Assistant Loco Pilot and Technician Post. It is described as follows.

Dear Candidate, An error was observed in the provisional prorated and normalized score of Part B. It has been corrected and updated on 24th March 2019 at 3PM. Kindly login to view your correct provisional score. Inconvenience caused is regretted.

While checking the result the above mensioned message is shown in the official website of RRB. Their is a mistake or error in normalised score of Part B and it will be correct itself 3.00 pm 24th March. Candidates are advised to check their marks after 3.00 pm.

For checking the Result visit www.rrbalp.digialm.com/EForms/configuredHtml/1907/57281/login.html

CEN 01/2018 (ALP & Technicians Posts) Viewing of Provisional Score and Question Paper with Responses & Final Keys Published

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RRBs are in the process of preparing the shortlist for Aptitude Test. In the meanwhile, it has been decided to publish candidate responses along with the final answer key; number of questions answered; questions ignored if any; provisional actual, prorated and normalised score for both Part A and Part B for information of candidates.

Accordingly candidates are advised to login to the link provided on the websites of RRBs and view their
details. The link will be available from 23.00 hrs of 23-03-19 to 23.59 hrs of 25-03-19.

Link for Provisional Score and QP Html www.rrbalp.digialm.com/EForms/configuredHtml/1907/57281/login.html

The result containing shortlisted candidates for Aptitude Test for the post of Assistant Loco Pilot is likely to be published on or before 06-04-19. The Computer Based Aptitude
Test is provisionally scheduled on 16-04-19.

Official Notification

RRB group D fee refund (CEN.No.02/2018)

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The Railway Recruitment Board will activate the link to submit/modify bank account details for RRB Group D (CEN.No.02/2018). The fee refund process started.

Courtesy : Railway Recruitment Board

Candidates should make sure that they submit correct bank account number and IFSC code because modification in the bank details will not be possible after submission.

The last date to submit the bank account details is March 28, 2019.

For correcting or update Bank details visit www.rrbonlinereg.in and click on account details correction.

Select your RRB and login to website using Registration number and date of birth for correcting Bank account.

Job Fest at MES College Erumely on 23rd March 2019

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Employability Centre, Kottayam conduct a Job Fest in association with MES College , Erumely on 23rd March 2019.

Venue : MES College, Erumely.

Time : 9.00.am

Date : 23rd March 2019

Over 20+ companies will participate in this Job Fest and above 1000 + vacancies are reported.

Candidates must bring 5 sets of biodata and copies of certificates for attending the job fest.

Wipro Campus Recruitment at TKM College of Arts and Science

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Wipro Conduct a Campus Recruitment at TKM College of Arts and Science on 27th March 2019. This Campus Interview is conducted for Non Engineering category vacancies. Final year student can apply.

Venue Address : TKM College of Arts & Science, Kollam – 691005
Event Start Date : 27-March-2019
Reporting Time : 09:00 am.
Test Time : 09:30 am

Registration link https://synergy.wipro.com/campus/lgn?opr=cdr&eventId=AeXHl2qyUQE%3D0

Since Wipro transitioned to an online assessment model from last year, request you to ensure that the candidates have completed the online registration at least 2days prior to the event date.

Instructions to Pre-registration and submission of CAM Form:

  • Step 1: Candidate logs in to the Registration link and fills details.
  • Step 2: Candidate should mandatorily upload his/her scanned photo in the registration page (photo size should be less than 50KB).
  • Step 3: Post providing mandatory details and uploading scanned photograph, candidate should click on “SAVE & CONTINUE REGISTRATION”.
  • Step 4: After registration candidates would be re-directed to the CAM Form.
  • Step 5: Candidate should fill all the relevant fields in the CAM Form and click on ‘Submit’ button to submit the form.

Important Note: Candidate can also login to Candidate desktop and update the CAM form post first level
registration

For more details visit www.tkmcas.ac.in

Book Train Ticket through Google Pay

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We can book train tickets directly through the Google Pay app. Google Pay (Tez) is allowed users to Book Train Ticket directly thorough Google Pay application.

How to book a train ticket through Google Pay

  • Open Google Pay application
  • Go through the business section tap to Train or search for Train on New section.
  • Give the station name origin, destination and select deat of travel and tap to available Trains.
  • Find a Train which you would like to travel and and click the availability.
  • Confirm that the details entered are correct, then tap to Ok button.
  • Give the IRCTC user Id for booking, if you don’t have IRCTC ID, here an option to create it, Create Account.
  • Enter your passenger and contact information. If you plan to travel with other people or infants (children aged 5 and below), enter their information too.
  • Give all informations and tap to continue, If the information is incorrect, tap Edit trip. Update your information, then continue to the next step.
  • Select a payment method, then tap Proceed to pay. Enter your UPI PIN. After your PIN is confirmed, you’re taken to the IRCTC website.
  • Enter your IRCTC password and the CAPTCHA.
  • Tap Submit. A confirmation screen appears.

BSNL Broadband Unlimited Standalone Plan: 5 GB Free Trial

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BSNL announced one Month Free Trial Broadband for BSNL Landline customers. Bandwidth is 10Mbps till 5GB per day; 1 Mbps beyond. Offer till 31.03.2019 only.

Bandwidth (Download Speed) subject to technical feasibility Upto 10Mbps till 5GB, Upto 1Mbps beyond. All existing Landline customers are eligible. Their is no fixed monthly charge. Also no security deposit is applicable. Free calls are provided as per existing Landline plans.

This plan is purely unlimited Broadband Plan. Activation till 31.03.2019 is permitted. Only for one month free trial is applicable. After one month (free trial period), customer will be migrated to any BB plan of his choice or to BB BSNL CUL, if no request for withdrawal of the plan is received.

BSNL Kerala Latest Prepaid Offers

BSNL Kerala

Tech Fest at Employability Centre Kollam on 23rd March 2019

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District Employability Centre, Kollam conduct a “Tech Fest” on 23rd March 2019 (Saturday) at Employability Centre Kollam.

This Tech Fest is conducted for Exclusive opening for B.Tech and M.Tech Students. For Registration and more details Contact 04742740615, 618.

Venue : Employability Centre, Kollam

Date : 23.03.2019 Saturday

Time : 10.00 am to 2.00 pm

Vacancies

NEET Coaching : Biology – Plant Kingdom

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This is a complete set of Questions from Plant Kingdom which is a part of Biology syllabus for NEET Examination. Here 72 MCQ based Questions included from this topic.

The National Eligibility cum Entrance Test (NEET) Coaching : Biology – Plant Kingdom

[googlepdf url=”http://techtreasure.in/wp-content/uploads/2019/03/SECTION-C-Plant-kingdom.pdf” width=”100%” height=”600″]

NEET Coaching Biology: Biological Classification

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NEET Coaching Biology: Biological Classification Sample Questions (Plus One Topic) 

    1. Select the correct statement
      1. The three-domain system has also been proposed divides the Kingdom Monera into one domains, leaving the remaining eukaryotic kingdoms with second and third domain and thereby a six kingdom classification.
      2) Marine forms of amoeboids have silica shells on their surface.
      3) Slime moulds are saprophytic protists. The body moves along decaying twigs and leaves engulfing organic material. Under suitable conditions, they form an aggregation called plasmodium which may grow and spread over only few cm.
      4) The below diagram represent saprophytic protozoans.
    2. Select the correct options regarding prions
      1) In modern medicine certain infections neurological diseases were found to be transmitted by an agent consisted of normally folded protein.
      2) The agent was large in size compared to viruses. These agents were called prions.
      3) The most notable diseases caused by prions are bovine spongiform encephalopathy (BSE) commonly called mad cow disease in cattle
      4) Its homologous variant Cr–Jacob disease (CJD) in humans.
    3. In lichens mycobionts do …………..A……… .and phycobionts do……….B…….
      1) A= provide shelter and absorb mineral nutrients and water B= prepare food
      2) A= prepare food B= provide shelter and absorb mineral nutrients and water
      3) A= provide shelter  B= prepare food and absorb mineral nutrients and water
      4) A= absorb mineral nutrients and water  B= prepare food and provide shelter
    4. Viroids are
      1) Main cause of bovine spongiform encephalopathy
      2) High molecular weight RNA cause potato spindle
      3) Free RNA that lack protein coat discovered by T O Diener in 1981
      4) A new infectious agent that was smaller than viruses and caused potato spindle tuber disease
    5. The name virus that means venom or poisonous fluid was given by
      1) Pasteur
      2) D.J. Ivanowsky
      3) M.W. Beijerinek
      4) W.M. Stanley
    6. …………………. (1892) recognised certain microbes as causal organism of the mosaic disease of tobacco .These were found to be …………………….because they passed through bacteria-proof filters.
      1) D.J. Ivanowsky 1893, smaller than bacteria
      2) Pasteur 1892, larger than bacteria
      3) D.J. Ivanowsky 1892, smaller than bacteria
      4) M.W. Beijerinek 1898, smaller than bacteria
    7. Find the mismatch
      1) M.W. Beijerinek (1898) -demonstrated that the extract of the infected plants of tobacco Contagium vivum fluidum
      2) W.M. Stanley (1935) -viruses could be crystallised and crystals consist largely of proteins.
      3) D.J. Ivanowsky 1893-demonstrated that the extract of the infected plants of tobacco Contagium vivum fluidum
      4) All are correct
    8. Bacteriophages are
      1) Usually single stranded DNA viruses that infect the bacteria
      2) Usually double stranded RNA viruses that infect the bacteria
      3) Usually double stranded DNA viruses that infect the bacteria
      4) Usually double stranded RNA viruses that infect the plants
    9. Select the correct option regarding the diagram

      A                   B               C                  D
      1) Head      collar         sheath       Tail fibres
      2) Head      sheath       collar         Tail fibres
      3) DNA       Collar         Sheath      Tail fibres
      4) Head collar Sheath basal plate

 

    1. The viruses are
      1) Acellular organisms that are characterised by having an inert crystalline structure inside the living cell.
      2) Non-cellular organisms that are characterised by having an inert crystalline structure inside the living cell.
      3) Non-cellular organisms that are characterised by having an inert crystalline structure outside the living cell.
      4) Non-cellular organisms that are characterised by having an inert crystalline structure inside and outside the living cell.
    2. Find out the mismatched pair
      1) Bladderwort -insectivorous plants
      2) Cuscuta –parasite
      3) Venus fly trap -insectivorous plants
      4) Sundew- parasite
    3. Select the correct statements regarding dueteromycetes
      A. Once perfect (sexual) stages of members of dueteromycetes were discovered they were often moved to ascomycetes and basidiomycetes.
      B. The deuteromycetes reproduce only by sexual spores known as conidia
      C. The mycelium is Aseptate and branched.
      D. Some members are saprophytes or parasites while a large number of them are decomposers of litter and help in mineral cycling.
      E. Some examples are Alternaria, Colletotrichum andTrichoderma.
      1) A,B,C
      2) A,D,E
      3) B,C,D,E
      4) A,C,D,E

 

    1. Basidiospores are
      1) Exogenous spores found in fruiting bodies of Agaricus Ustilago and neurospora.4 in one basidium
      2) Endogenous spores found in fruiting bodies of Agaricus Ustilago and Puccinia 8 in one basidium
      3) Exogenous spores found outside fruiting bodies of Agaricus Ustilago and Puccinia .8 in one basidium
      4) Exogenous spores found in fruiting bodies of Agaricus Ustilago and Puccinia . 4 in one basidium
    2. Asexual spores are absent in
      1) Neurospora Ustilago and Puccinia
      2) Agaricus Ustilago and Puccinia
      3) Agaricus Ustilago Neurospora and Puccinia
      4) Agaricus Ustilago claviceps and Puccinia
    3. Neurospora is used
      1) Extensively in biochemical and genetic work. They posses endogenous spores called ascospores
      2) Very less in biochemical and genetic work. They posses endogenous spores called ascospores
      3) Extensively in biochemical and genetic work. they posses exogenous spores called basidiospores
      4) Extensively in biochemical and genetic work.the posses exogenous spores called ascospores
    4. Find the correct sequence of life cycle in Ascomycytes
      1) Plamogamy -dikaryon–fruiting body-karyogamy-meiosis-ascospores-haploid hyphae
      2) Fruiting body – Plamogamy –dikaryon-karyogamy-meiosis-ascospores-diploid hyphae
      3) Plamogamy- dikaryon –fruiting body-karyogamy-meiosis-ascospores-diploid hyphae
      4) Fruiting body- Plamogamy –dikaryon-karyogamy-meiosis-ascospores-haploid hyphae
    5. Coprophilous fungi include
      1) Peziza and pilobolus dueteromycetes
      2) Peziza and pilobolus basidiomycetes
      3) Peziza and pilobolus ascomycetes
      4) Agaricus and colletotrichum-basidiomycete
    6. Fungi causing ring worm infections are
      1) Trichoderma.-Dueteromycetes
      2) Aspergillus – Ascomycytes
      3) Alternaria, Colletotrichum-phycomycetes
      4) None of the above

 

    1. Non motile endogenous asexual spores are
      1) Zoospore
      2) Aplanospore
      3) Ascospores
      4) Conidiospores
    2. Dikaryon phase is found in
      A. Rhizopus
      B. Albugo
      C. Ustilago
      D. Aspergillus
      E. Mucor
      F. Puccinia
      G. Colletotrichum
      H. Penicillium
      I. Claviceps
      J. Neurospora
      K. Yeast
      1) C,D,F,H,I,J
      2) A,C,D,J
      3) B,D,E,F,G,H,I
      4) A,C,D,J,K
    3. Many members like morels and truffles are.
      1) Edible and are considered delicacies in basidiomycetes
      2) Not edible and are considered delicacies in ascomycetes
      3) edible and are not considered delicacies in ascomycetes
      4) Edible and are considered delicacies in dueteromycetes
    4. Select the incorrect statements
      1) White spots seen on mustard leaves are due to a parasitic algal fungi- albugo
      2) Some unicellular fungi, e.g., yeast are used to make bread and beer.
      3) Wheat rust-causing Puccinia belongs to ascomycetes
      4) Some are the source of antibiotics, e.g., Penicillium.

 

    1. Symbiotic forms of fungi seen in association with lichens are
      1) Usnea
      2) Cladonia
      3) Rocella
      4) All the above
    2. Storage form of food in fungi is
      1) Oil
      2) Oil and glycogen
      3) Oil,glycogen and starch
      4) Laminarin and mannitol
    3. Fusion of gametangia is seen in
      1) Rhizopus,mucor,albugo
      2) Puccinia ,aspergillus
      3) Trichoderma,Colletotricum
      4) All the above
    4. Find the correct pair
      A. Primary mycelium-monokaryotic and haploid
      B. Secondary mycelium-monokaryotic and diploid(2n)
      C. Tertiary mycelium- dikaryotic and diploid(2n)
      1) 1 only
      2) 1 and 2 only
      3) 1,2 and 3
      4) None are correct
    5. Cell wall of fungi is made of
      1) Chitin – a heteropolysaccharide
      2) Chitin and pectin- homopolysaccharides
      3) Chitin –a homopolysaccharide
      4) Chitin,pectin and hemicellulose
    6. Select the parasitic fungi from the following
      1. Puccinia
      2. Penicillium
      3. Albugo
      4. Peziza
      5. Pilobolus
      6. Ustilago
      1) 1,4,5,6
      2) 1,3,6
      3) 1 and 6 only
      4) All the above
    7. The three-domain system has also been proposed that divides the Kingdom …..A………into two domains, leaving the remaining ….B……….kingdoms in the third domain and thereby a six kingdom classification.
      A                          B
      1) Protista           Eukaryotes
      2) Monera           Prokaryotes
      3) Fungi              Eukaryotes
      4) Monera           Eukaryotes

 

    1. Select the correct statements regarding earlier classification systems
      I. Included bacteria, blue green algae, fungi, mosses, ferns, gymnosperms and the angiosperms under ‘Plants’.
      II. The character that unified this whole kingdom was that all the organisms included had a cell wall in their cells.
      III. It brought together the prokaryotic bacteria and eukaryotic blue green algae with other groups which were eukaryotic.
      IV. It also grouped together the unicellular organisms and the multicellular like Chlamydomonas and Spirogyra were placed together under algae.
      V. The classification did not differentiate between the heterotrophic group – fungi, and the autotrophic green plants
      1) I,ii,iii,iv
      2) I,ii,iv,v
      3) I,ii,v
      4) All are correct
    2. Kingdom Protista has brought together
      1. Chlamydomonas,
      2. Chlorella
      3. Paramoecium
      4. Amoeba
      1) 1 and 2
      2) 3 and 4
      3) All the above
      4) None of these
    3. Classification system is usuallybased on
      A. Morphological
      B. Physiological
      C. Reproductive similarities
      D. Phylogenetic,
      1) A and B
      2) A and C
      3) A, B and D
      4) All the above
    4. Structure shown below is a microscopical view of

      1) Spores of Coccus
      2) Bacillus with some spores
      3) Coccus
      4) Spirilla
    5. Most extensive metabolic diversity is seen in
      1) Monera
      2) Protista
      3) Fungi
      4) Plantae and Animalia
    6. The vast majority of bacteria are
      1) Photosynthetic autotrophic
      2) Chemosynthetic autotrophic.
      3) Heterotrophs and decomposers
      4) 2 and 3
    7. Bacterial structure is …….A…., they are very ……..B……….in behaviour
      A                       B
      1) Simple        simple
      2) Simple        complex
      3) Complex     simple
      4) Complex     complex
    8. Motile eubacteria should posses
      1) Pili and fimbria
      2) flagellum
      3) Cilia and flagellum
      4) 1 and 2
    9. Main difference between archaebacteria and eubacteria is
      1) Cell membrane structure
      2) Cell wall structure
      3) Mesosomes
      4) All the above
    10. Select the odd one
      1) Salty areas -Halophiles,
      2) Hot springs –Thermoacidophiles
      3) Marshy areas- Methanogens
      4) Heterocyst – nostoc

 

    1. Select the incorrect statements about cyanobacteria
      1) Have chlorophyll a, b,d and carotenoids similar to green plants and are photosynthetic autotrophs
      2) The cyanobacteria are unicellular, colonial or filamentous, freshwater marine or terrestrial algae.
      3) The colonies are generally surrounded by gelatinous sheath
      4) They often form blooms in polluted water bodies.
    2. These organisms can fix atmospheric nitrogen in specialised cells called heterocysts,found in
      1) Nostoc found in association with alnus
      2) Anabaena found in coralloid roots of cycas
      3) Spirulina
      4) Chlorella
    3. Some members ofcyanobacteria oxidise various inorganic substances such as …………………………….and use the released energy for their ATP production.
      1) Nitrates,
      2) Nitrites
      3) Ammonia
      4) all the above
    4. Cyanobacteria somemembers play a great role in recycling nutrients like
      A. Nitrogen
      B. Phosphorous
      C. Carbon
      D. Chlorine
      E. calcium
      F. Iron
      G. Sulphur.
      1) A,B,G
      2) A,B,D,E,G
      3) A,B,F,G
      4) All the above
    5. Bacteria mainly reproduce by
      1) Spore formation
      2) Budding
      3) Fission
      4) Conjugation
    6. Mycoplasma
      a. Is the smallest cell without a cell wall
      b. Belongs to kingdom monera
      c. Anaerobic and pathogenic
      d. Pathogenic to animals and plants
      e. Pathogenic to animals only
      1) a,b,c,e
      2) a,b,c,d
      3) b,c,d
      4) b,c,e
    7. Diatoms and golden algae (desmids). They are found
      1) In fresh water environments only. They are microscopic and does not float in water currents
      2) In marine environments only. They are microscopic and float passively in water currents
      3) In fresh water as well as in marine environments. They are large massive and float passively in water currents
      4) In fresh water as well as in marine environments. They are microscopic and float passively in water currents
    8. Chief producers in oceans are
      1) Gonyaulax
      2) Euglena
      3) Planktons
      4) All the above
    9. Diatoms cell wall deposits are used in
      1) Polishing, filtration of oils and syrups
      2) Making sound proof walls
      3) Heat resistant bricks
      4) All the above
    10. Cell wall of the organism given below is

      1) Made of cellulose and double layered
      2) Made of silica and has two valves
      3) Made of pectin and cellulose and highly sculptured
      4) Made of outer pectin and inner cellulosic layer
    11.  Select the correct statement regarding the organism given below
      a. fresh water organisms found in stagnant water
      b. Marine water organisms found in stagnant water
      c. Have cell wall
      d. Have protein coat
      e. Have unequal flagella
      f. Have similar pigments like higher plants
      g. Heterotroph
      h. always autototroph
      i. Myxotroph
      j. Connecting link between plantae and animalia
      1) a,c,e,i
      2) b,d,ef,i
      3) a,d,e,f
      4) a,d,e,f,i,j

 

  1. African sleeping sickness is caused by
    1) Trypanosoma.a motile protozoan
    2) Trypanosoma. A non motile sporozoan
    3) Plasmodium a non motile sporozoan
    4) None of these
  2. Paramoecium have a cavity ……………..that opens to the outside of the cell surface to intake food
    1) Gullet
    2) Pseudopodia
    3) Water canal system
    4) Water vascular system
  3. Dual nucleus is a character of an organism belonging to……………..
    1) Amoeboid protozoan
    2) Flagellated protozoan
    3) Ciliated protozoan
    4) Sporozoans
  4. Virus infecting plants have…….p……….and animals have ………………q………
    a. ssRNA
    b. ds RNA
    c. ssDNA
    d. dsDNA
    P                     Q
    1) a                 a,b,d
    2) a,b              a,b,c,d
    3) a,b,c,d        a,b,d
    4) a                 a,b,c,d
  5. Mosaic formation, leaf rolling and curling, yellowing and vein clearing, dwarfing and stunted growth are symptoms of
    1) Fungal infection
    2) Viral infections
    3) Bacterial infections
    4) All the above
  6. Biological indicators of pollution are
    1) Some algae associated with fungi
    2) Some blue green algae associated with fungi
    3) Some algae or blue green algae associated with fungi
    4) None of these

SBI customers can now make ATM withdrawals without debit card

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SBI customers can now make ATM withdrawals without debit card. This facility is available with SBI YONO Application. For available this facility customers must be registered in YONO application. Customers can generate a one-time pin (OTP) on their mobile application and use the pin to transact from the bank’s ATM.

The service currently will be available at 16500 ATMs. The generated pin has a half an hour validity during which the customer can go to any of SBI’s ATM and withdraw money using the OTP number. Withdraw a Maximum of ₹10000 in a Single Transaction and ₹20000 from an ATM.

How to Generate an OTP for withdraw money.

  • Open SBI YONO Application and click YONO Pay Button.
  • After click on Yono Cash button for Generating OTP.
  • Here 3 options are available, 1. Nearest YONO Cash Point. This facility is for finding the cash withdrawal enabled ATMs near by your location. Current a few ATMs are enabled by this facility. 2. Transactions, which is used to view the transactions done by the customer. 3. Request Yono Cash. This option is for generate OTP for withdraw cash from ATM.
  • While opening this option choose the account number and enter the amount for generate OTP.
  • Please note that existing customers must be update their YONO app through Playstore for getting this feature.

NEET Coaching : Biology- Living World

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NEET Coaching Plus One Topic – Living World Sample questions

1. Which of the following is incorrect regarding scientific names?
1) These are also known as common names
2) These ensure that each organism has only one name
3) These have two components – the generic name and specific epithet
4) These are universally accepted names
2. According to binomial nomenclature, every living organism has
1) Two scientific names with single component
2) One scientific name with two components
3) Two names, one Latin and other common
4) One common name with three components

3. Which of the following is incorrect w.r.t. Species?
1) A group of individual organisms with fundamental similarities
2) Two different species breed together to produce fertile offsprings
3) Human beings belong to the species sapiens
4) Panthera has many specific epithet as tigris, leo and pardus

4. Which of the following features are not shown by scientific names of various organism?
1) They consists of two components
2) They have Latin origin
3) They always have “linn” abbreviation at the end of second component
4) They are printed in italics

5. The correct sequence of taxonomic study of a newly discovered organism is
1) First classification then identification, nomenclature and characterization
2) First identification then classifying organism and then characterizations and nomenclature
3) First nomenclature then characterization, identification and classification
4) First characterisation then identification and classification and then nomenclature

6. Which one of the following statements given below is not included in universal rules of nomenclature?
1) Generic names and specific epithet should be in Latin words
2) Generic name is immediately followed by name of taxonomists who described it firstly
3) Generic name must begin with capital letter
4) All letters of the specific name must be small

7. Match the following columns
Column-I Column-II
a. Binomial nomenclature (i) Carolus Linnaeus
b. Generic name (ii) Muscidae
c. Family (iii) Panthera
d. Systema naturae
1) a(i), b(iii), c(iii), d(ii)
2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)
3) a(ii), b(i), c(i), d(iii)
4) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(i)

8. Cat and dog are placed in which families respectively
1) Felidae and Hominidae
2) Muscidae and Felidae
3) Poaceae and Canidae
4) Felidae and Canidae

9. Which one of the following criteria is/are essential and form the basis of classical taxonomic studies?
1) Ecological information of organisms
2) Development process
3) External and internal structure
4) External structure

10. In taxonomic hierarchy, which of the following group of taxa will have less number of similarities as compared to other?
1) Solanaceae, Convolvulaceae and Poaceae
2) Polymoniales, Poales and Sapindales
3) Solanum, Petunia and Atropa
4) Leopard, tiger and lion

11. Taxonomic categories which come lower to the rank of class are
1) Order, phylum, family, species
2) Order, family, genus, species
3) Division, family, order, genus
4) Order, division, genus, species

12. A place used for storing, preservation and exhibition of both plants and animals is known as
1) Herbaria
2) Botanical Garden
3) Museum
4) Zoos

13. Herbarium consists of
1) Collection of living plants
2) Collection of plant and animal specimens preserved in the containers
3) Preserved insects in boxes after collecting killing and pinning
4) Herbarium sheets carrying dried, pressed and preserved plant specimens on them

14. Key is
1) A form of herbaria
2) A type of educational institute
3) A taxonomical aid used for identifying various organisms
4) Taxonomic category

15. In zoological parks, animals are
1) Kept and preserved in containers or jars
2) Preserved in boxes after killing
3) Kept in protected environments under human care
4) Stuffed and then preserved

16. Carolus Linnaeus is the father of taxonomy because of one of his contributions
1) Genera Plantarum
2) Binomial nomenclature
3) Described nearly ten thousand plants and animal species
4) Die Naturlichen Pflanzen Familien

17. In which of the following pair of category, greater is the difficulty of determining the relationship to other taxa
at the same level, thus, the problem of classification becomes more complex?
1) Genus and species
2) Variety and genus
3) Division and phylum
4) Species and family

18. Rice, cereals, monocots and plants represent
1) Different taxa at different level
2) Same taxa of different category
3) Different category of same taxa
4) Same category for different taxa

19. Potato and brinjal belong to the genus Solanum, which reflects that
1) They belong to single species
2) They are a group of related species
3) They both are morphologically and structurally similar to each other in all respects
4) They can always produce fertile hybrid

20. Mark the incorrect pair.
1) Hydra – Budding
2) Flatworm – Regeneration
3) Amoeba – Fragmentation
4) Yeast – Budding

21. Which of the following is incorrect for reproduction?
1) Unicellular organisms reproduce by cell division
2) Reproduction is a characteristic of all living organisms
3) In unicellular organisms, reproduction and growth are linked together
4) Non-living objects are incapable of reproducing

22. Mark the incorrect statement w.r.t. metabolism.
1) Microbes exhibit the metabolism
2) It is the property of all living forms
3) The metabolic reactions can be demonstrated in-vitro
4) It is not a defining feature of life forms

23. Which statement is false about the growth shown by non-living objects?
1) The growth occurs from outside
2) The growth is reversible
3) The growth is due to the accumulation of material on the surface
4) The growth is intrinsic

GATE 2019 Result Published

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The Indian Institute of Technology (IIT), Madras has declared the results of Graduate Aptitude Test in Engineering (GATE) 2019, March 15. All the candidates who appeared for the GATE 2019 can check their scores on the official website. For checking visit gate.iitm.ac.in .

The qualified candidates will be able to download their GATE 2019 score cards from March 20 to May 31, 2019.

The IIT Madras conducted the GATE 2019 on February 2, 3, 9 and 10, 2019.

The GATE 2019 score card is made available for the qualified candidates from GATE Online Application Processing System(GOAPS), the link for which is https://appsgate.iitm.ac.in/